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知乎，中文互联网高质量的问答社区和创作者聚集的原创内容平台，于 2011 年 1 月正式上线，以「让人们更好的分享知识、经验和见解，找到自己的解答」为品牌使命。知乎，中文互联网高质量的问答社区和创作者聚集的原创内容平台，于 2011 年 1 月正式上线，以「让人们更好的分享知识、经验和见解，找到自己的解答」为品牌使命。 Hi, welcome to Math SE! Can you show us the proof you're looking at? There are a lot of false proofs of this sort out there, typically involving division by 0, I would imagine that's probably the gimmick in the proof you've found. Here's a helpful link to get a sense for how to use MathJax. There are multiple ways of writing out a given complex number, or a number in general. Usually we reduce things to the simplest terms for display -- saying $0$ is a lot cleaner than saying $1-1$ for example. The complex numbers are a field. This means that every non-$0$ element has a multiplicative inverse, and that inverse is unique. While $1/i = i^ -1 $ is true (pretty much by definition. 知乎，中文互联网高质量的问答社区和创作者聚集的原创内容平台，于 2011 年 1 月正式上线，以「让人们更好的分享知识、经验和见解，找到自己的解答」为品牌使命。 I am unsure how to go about doing this inverse product problem: The question says to find the value of each matrix expression where A and B are the invertible 3 x 3. 知乎是一个中文互联网高质量问答社区和创作者聚集的原创内容平台，提供知识共享、互动交流和个人成长机会。 $$\sum\limits_ n=1 ^ \infty \frac 1 n (n+1) = 1$$ My calculator reveals that the answer found when evaluating this series is 1. However, I am not sure how it arrives at this conclusion. I understand that partial fractions will be used to create the following equation. I just don't understand how to proceed with the problem. Is there a formal proof for $(-1) \\times (-1) = 1$? It's a fundamental formula not only in arithmetic but also in the whole of math. Is there a proof for it or is it just assumed? 知乎，中文互联网高质量的问答社区和创作者聚集的原创内容平台，于 2011 年 1 月正式上线，以「让人们更好的分享知识、经验和见解，找到自己的解答」为品牌使命。知乎凭借认真、专业、友善的社区氛围、独特的产品机制以及结构化和易获得的优质内容，聚集了中文互联网科技、商业、影视.

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